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Marriage licenses came about in the late 19th century to prevent mixed-race marriages. That should be appalling to anyone, and is in my opinion the strongest argument to privatize marriage.

The American colonies officially required marriages to be registered, but until the mid-19th century, state supreme courts routinely ruled that public cohabitation was sufficient evidence of a valid marriage. By the later part of that century, however, the United States began to nullify common-law marriages and exert more control over who was allowed to marry.

By the 1920s, 38 states prohibited whites from marrying blacks, “mulattos,” Japanese, Chinese, Indians, “Mongolians,” “Malays” or Filipinos.

At the heart of it all, predictably, is the urge to control the lives of others. White people might marry black people! Horror of horrors. Therefore, the state must get involved. No doubt these arguments in favor of more government meddling were made with an overlying patina of “freedom.” Just as the modern anti-immigration crowd today argues that we must destroy freedom in order to save it, the old racist proponents of government marriage likely argued that we must abolish freedom in marriage or the “Negro agitatuhs” and their dusky-skinned allies will destroy freedom. Conservative “logic” at its best.

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— Ryan McMaken The Racist Origins of Government Marriage in America
(via thinksquad)

(Source: thinksquad, via bonehandledknife)

lewandaddy:

ppl who dont understand the dynamic of ethnic oppression in europe obviously havent gotten to that unit in 7th grade history how close minded and uneducated can u be to not understand that all racism is oppression but not all oppression is racism how can u turn a blind eye to the fact that yes a great vast majority of holocaust victims were white but would u not classify the deadliest genocide in history as oppression??? when franco was trying to wipe out non-castilian ethnic groups in spain like the catalans and the basques and the galicians was that not oppression???? what about the balkan conflicts in the 90s??? yes somewhere within their histories these oppressed groups have benefited from white/european privilege but that doesn’t mean that they haven’t been oppressed and targeted and killed off because the american formula for discrimination is not something that can be applied to the rest of the world’s history esp countries that have been somewhat racially homogenous until the modern globalized era

(via adelindschade)